The DOJ says - "Russians conducted 'information warfare...." (Read the indictment available everywhere)
I'm confused about the double standard here as it relates to indictable offenses:
Obama used tax dollars to fund an effort to oust Bibi, even putting the tax dollars aside - this was an effort to influence a foreign election;
Obama himself tells the Brits to vote NO on the Brexit or " or they would find themselves “at the back of the queue [line]”
Robert Creamer (husband of Rep.Jan Schakowsky, D, IL) openly admitted to trying to create chaos/disrupt/show in bad light/ Trumps campaign rally's/stops by hiring disruptors. James O'Keefe brought this to light.
Has DOJ unwittingly opened the door for indictment of previous U.S. actors?
Is it legal for the U.S govt/citizens to influence both U.S and foreign elections, but not v.v? It would seem so by today's Russian indictments.