Anonymous ID: 13c732 Feb. 12, 2021, 7:23 p.m. No.56926   🗄️.is 🔗kun   >>6928

>>56804

Not trying to be a Debbie downer here but no court can act on it’s own volition-it must first be invited in some way. In other words, there has to be a case filed in order for the court to get involved. Once involved, the court is also limited in terms of what it can do. It is typically limited to only deciding the issue in the case and rendering judgment for the damages requested. In very rare cases, a court can act on it’s own volition (called SUA SPONTE) and do something it wasn’t actually asked to do by a party. Still, sua sponte is an impossibility if there is no case. So, in a nutshell, I guess SCOTUS will act on Congress’ overreach when someone asks them to. But no guarantees.

Anonymous ID: 13c732 Feb. 12, 2021, 8:11 p.m. No.56931   🗄️.is 🔗kun   >>6955

>>56928

If this is potentially notable, I can find actual sauce from a treatise or case or something. I was just offering a quick answer to an anon but, if you think it’s important, I can pull something more reliable than wiki (that second paragraph is not something I would describe as accurate overall).