Anonymous ID: 814fdf Aug. 31, 2020, 11:24 p.m. No.10491154   🗄️.is 🔗kun

How much of history since the time of Christ has been fabricated from whole cloth?

 

Why do elite lineages seem so utterly convenient & sound like over-recycled storytelling?

 

How many years/centuries were possibly inserted between the time of Christ & the Middle Ages?

 

Why is there virtually no technological advancement for about 1000 years between "1 A.D." and the Middle Ages?

 

How easy would it have been for Vatican/Rome to back-write 1000 years of self-legitimizing history once it had swiftly rendered most of the western world's population illiterate?

 

Why is the chronology handed down to the west so incongruent with those of other lands - which the Jesuits have also infiltrated to change ever since their counter reformation against the Protestants?

 

What did reformers know besides Rome's religious atrocities in their own day?

 

Depending upon how much of the book of Revelation you read as a symbolic history of the time since the first coming of Christ, the alternative chronology I am implying here fits much better with a lot of it in certain ways, and wouldn't surprise me if true.

 

The book of Revelation states that whoever adds or takes away from the words of its prophecy - which may include deceiving the world about much of the history prophesied therein - will partake of the plagues written therein.

 

Vatican/Rome fits this description in any case.

 

Paul prophesied that the Mystery of Iniquity was already at work in his day - perhaps it did not call itself Catholic Rome as of yet, but it sounds eerily similar to the name of a certain Harlot who rules (arguably still today) over the kings of the earth…