As has been mentioned, states like California say they will accept mail in ballots as late as 17 days after the election.
But wait a minute. If you vote in person the polls generally close at some point the day of the election. Some as early as 9PM.
You can bet that democrat controlled areas will close down some usual polling places and declare they don't have enough machines to distribute. Which will leave tons of voters out of the ability to participate in the election. And even if polling places offer provisional ballots to mail in or drop off at election offices, most provisional ballots will not be counted- unless the election is close. Consult state election rules as to what close means. It can be very little. Said candidate won by 2%, sorry, no provisional ballots will be counted no matter how many. That might change the desired result- unless the desired result wasn't attained then watch the "rules" change.
My question is, aren't mail in voters getting privileges, maybe even extra constitutional, the voters at the polls aren't? To be fair and equal to all citizens, shouldn't the polls be open as long as the mail in ballots are accepted? Why do vote by mail people get extra time? Are they a special class?
I don't even buy the "postmarked by" date. That could be a function manipulated. Ballots should arrive by the day of the election and if the polls close at 9pm, so should the acceptance of mail in ballots.
Why is one form of voting privileged above another? Keep the polls open as long as mail in ballots are accepted, or make the polls closing time also the drop dead time for mail in ballots.
Seems legislatures and courts have conveniently forgotten they are discriminating against one form of voting.