Something does not add up with the POTUS FLOTUS Hope situation.

Without suspecting anything nefarious, and just looking at the timeline, something is not quite right:

The Covid-19 incubation period can vary from about 5-21 days (rarely longer). It is typically somewhere around 7-10 days. (Figures that are pushed in Europe in particular, but also in the US as of late, suggest a shorter period, and claim that there are no cases after 14 days, however study data proves otherwise. Borders in Europe are open, and officials are trying to keep the quarantine period as short as possible, hence the push for the 5 days instead of the previously acknowledged 10-14).

During this incubation period, someone is already infected AND INFECTUOUS, meaning that person can spread the virus AND the virus can be detected in that person's oropharyngeal tract - shortly after they become infected.

It's only after this incubation period that symptoms occur (if they do occur at all).

POTUS and his inner circle (including Hope) get tested every morning.

Obviously, everybody has tested negative for months, i.e. including the last 3-4 weeks, i.e. during the incubation period of POTUS, FLOTUS and Hope.

Hope developed symptoms on Thursday evening (I believe) and subsequently tested positive.

I ask you: how is this possible ? How could she have tested negative THAT SAME MORNING and ALL MORNINGS (that she was at work) for MONTHS ? Even if the test had some false-negatives (which almost every test will have, however miniscule, for many reasons). Even if the test only picked up 70% of actual infections, it is virtually impossible that this infection would not have been detected during the preceding days.

(This stands, even if she developed symptoms a day or two earlier).

On the other hand, if all the previous tests were correct, and she was indeed negative: how come that the Covid-19 incubation period suddenly changed from 5 days as the shortest possible time-frame to less than a day ? Biologically, that's almost impossible.

So how can this be explained ?

Well, I would ask the following question: what is she infected with ? The "real" Covid-19 ? Or a modified virus that has a drastically shorter incubation period, but is similar enough to be picked up by the Covid-19 PCR Test ?

Now let's do POTUS: Tested negative every day for months, including Thursday morning.

Suddenly tests positive on Thursday evening. If he got infected during the course of Thursday (or even Wednesday), that should give him AT LEAST 5 symptom-free days, and typically this period would be 7-10 days, maybe even longer.

But what happens ? He shows symptoms on Friday morning, i.e. 24 hours after his last negative test.

This cannot possibly be the "original Covid-19" infection. This virus behaves differently. Even if this were due to a "natural" change of the virus (which would not happen so suddenly and drastically): How big are the chances, that the first person who gets infected with this "new virus type" just happens to be someone from POTUS's inner circle ? I'd say close to zero.

Think about it.