Anons, in a "Think Mirror" sort of way, If saying "democrat" is ruled by Courts to be discriminatory because it was considered code for Latino in a Voting rights act case, wouldn't saying "republican" in this current environment be saying white men? Stretching that further… Trump voter. We have been 5 years hearing from dems and MSM that Trump voters are non educated white males.
Would we all agree that the voting demographic for dem strongholds are large inner cities where white is minority? White majority are suburbs and rural areas?
I am asking because I am studying cases associated with Voting Rights Act of 1965 and it's amendments.
I am doing so because I am trying to fin the "Old Law" POTUS dusted off and think this might be it. (section 3c) If I am correct, it means mail in voting, touted as favorable to dems by dems and MSM for months prior to election, was discriminatory in it's intent. Any State calling for it would have needed to seek preclearance by DOJ before passing laws. Added confusion is States didn't pass laws, Governors signed EO's.