https://twitter.com/wikileaks/status/1117123131804737541
Anons thoughts on this angle? This guy is basically saying VP can reject the slates from the swing states and tell them to submit a non-fraudulent slate of electors, which will force those states or Biden camp to then take it up with the courts.
https://twitter.com/Raiklin/status/1340670966867832836
But in order to disqualify any electors that receive objection it not only requires 1 Rep in the House and 1 in the Senate to formally object in writing (I'm guessing we likely have those 2), but also a majority vote in both houses to sustain that objection and remove the electors.
Am I wrong about that?
https://constitutioncenter.org/blog/faq-what-happens-next-in-the-presidential-election-process