Anonymous ID: 6c6916 Dec. 26, 2020, 7:31 a.m. No.12182825   🗄️.is 🔗kun   >>2912

 

>>12182712

based Nippon

>>12182720

Article 7. Whether some good of the soul constitutes man's happiness?

 

I answer that, As stated above (I-II:1:8), the end is twofold: namely, the thing itself, which we desire to attain, and the use, namely, the attainment or possession of that thing. If, then, we speak of man's last end, it is impossible for man's last end to be the soul itself or something belonging to it. Because the soul, considered in itself, is as something existing in potentiality: for it becomes knowing actually, from being potentially knowing; and actually virtuous, from being potentially virtuous. Now since potentiality is for the sake of act as for its fulfillment, that which in itself is in potentiality cannot be the last end. Therefore the soul itself cannot be its own last end.

 

In like manner neither can anything belonging to it, whether power, habit, or act. For that good which is the last end, is the perfect good fulfilling the desire. Now man's appetite, otherwise the will, is for the universal good. And any good inherent to the soul is a participated good, and consequently a portioned good. Therefore none of them can be man's last end.

 

But if we speak of man's last end, as to the attainment or possession thereof, or as to any use whatever of the thing itself desired as an end, thus does something of man, in respect of his soul, belong to his last end: since man attains happiness through his soul. Therefore the thing itself which is desired as end, is that which constitutes happiness, and makes man happy; but the attainment of this thing is called happiness.

 

Consequently we must say that happiness is something belonging to the soul; but that which constitutes happiness is something outside the soul.

 

>happiness is something belonging to the soul; but that which constitutes happiness is something outside the soul.