Can anon explain this purely theoretical ownership/taxation paradox?

Does anyone actually own "their" property?

If anon claims anon owns something, then anon becomes liable for property taxes.

However, anon can be deprived of said property for non-payment of ownership taxes, by the actual owner, the State, through seizure, repossession, and eviction, and forfeiture schemes.

By logic then, anon doesn't actually own said property, but is merely in possession of it.

Could anon truthfully declare that they do own any property then on a documeny like an annual tax assessment?

Who actually owns the stuff?