>I'm the one who told everyone that
But then you said "after" 1978.
So Holodomor occurred, somewhere around 7-10 million Ukrainians were killed, so why did it takeover 50 yearsfor just the term 'Holodomor' to enter any English Encyclopedia?
>I'm the one who told everyone that
But then you said "after" 1978.
So Holodomor occurred, somewhere around 7-10 million Ukrainians were killed, so why did it takeover 50 yearsfor just the term 'Holodomor' to enter any English Encyclopedia?
>AFTER 1978
The source cited said BY 1978.
>Because it wasn't well known in English and it was denied by the Soviets!
So that's why the term Holocaust wasn't in use until much later as well?
Because it was denied by the Nazis?