(Please read from the start)
>> Will I be shocking the reader if I said that Aramaic language is Phoenician language? If you want to understand me better, just take a look at how English was spoken and written during the time Shakespeare lived and compare it to the English we speak and write now. If I take this idea and apply it, I say the Phoenician language was like the English back during the time of Shakespeare, while Aramaic language is like the Middle English. There is a slight difference, some call it an evolution, but I call it a mutation which comes with time and younger generations. But there is no doubt for me that Aramaic is Phoenician Language. While modern day Hebrew is certainly a mutated “branch” of Phoenician language = Hebrew deviated from its origin: the Phoenician language. While Aramaic is like a softer Phoenician language. There are lot of identical things between Aramaic and Phoenician language. How should I explain this? It’s like Phoenician language is the old shape of the language, while the Aramaic is the newer shape of the language, but it’s the same language. It’s the same with the Old French = Français Ancient and the modern day French = Français moderne. To understand me better, I’m putting as an example a sentence I’ve found on the net written in Old English (1), Middle English (2), Early Modern English (3) and Modern English (4). The situation between Phoenician and Aramaic is identical to this situation with the English language. While with Hebrew it deviated from its origin = Phoenician. I hope now things are clear.
“A set of related bynames include the Aramaic rmn, Old South Arabic rmn, Hebrew rmwn, and Akkadian Rammānu ("Thunderer"), presumably originally vocalized as Ramān in Aramaic and Hebrew. The Hebrew spelling rmwn with Masoretic vocalization Rimmôn is identical with the Hebrew word meaning 'pomegranate' and may be an intentional misspelling and parody of the original.”
>> Anyone noticed how (((they))) “inserted” the Jews in what we are talking about again? = the cult of Hadad, a Phoenician deity. Amazing, isn’t it anons? Mostly how (((they))) redirect your thoughts towards Judaism and the Jews each time we are talking about anything concerning the Phoenicians.
“The word Hadad-rimmon, for which the inferior reading Hadar-rimmon is found in some manuscripts in the phrase "the mourning of (or at) Hadad-rimmon", has been a subject of much discussion. According to Jerome and all the older Christian interpreters, the mourning is for something that occurred at a place called Hadad-rimmon (Maximianopolis) in the valley of Megiddo. The event alluded to was generally held to be the death of Josiah (or, as in the Targum, the death of Ahab at the hands of Hadadrimmon). But even before the discovery of the Ugaritic texts some suspected that Hadad-rimmon might be a dying-and-rising god like Adonis or Tammuz, perhaps even the same as Tammuz, and the allusion could then be to mournings for Hadad such as those which usually accompanied the Adonis festivals. T. K. Cheyne pointed out that the Septuagint reads simply Rimmon, and argues that this may be a corruption of Migdon (Megiddo), in itself a corruption of Tammuz-Adon. He would render the verse, "In that day there shall be a great mourning in Jerusalem, as the mourning of the women who weep for Tammuz-Adon" (Adon means "lord"). No further evidence has come to light to resolve such speculations.”
>> Here you go anons, another attempt to link a Thunder deity to the Evil One. Are you starting to see the pattern of how the experts twist themselves backward and juggle their way into explaining the connection between Yahweh and the Phoenician culture? How many times did we see this in this thread, no matter what the subject is we are talking about, whenever it’s about the Phoenicians and their culture, the Jews and Yahweh is glued to it as a parasitic entity trying to mimic the Phoenicians.
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