From last bread. Seriously, why has this not been asked when Horowitz keeps claiming bias didn't effect the final decision.
Horowitz keeps alluding to the point that all the Dems are making about how politcal bias didn't play a factor in the investigation.
Horowitz keeps reflecting saying that political bias did not effect the prosecutorial decision and some other decisions he reviewed.
But if the underlying fact gathering is effected by political bias, the decisions made from there are inherently tainted.
I wish I could relay this question to someone in that room. Driving me nuts!