My wife's doctor prescribed blood pressure meds for her after one reading of 148/67 reading.

She's 76y old and takes no pills. Very active but stayed up all night the night before..

We mentioned that but he just insisted on pills and cutting back on sodium.

(Sodium and salt aren't the same thing. She don't take sodium!)

I know we ain't taking pills that cause diabetes and dementia. But how is that considered high blood pressure now?

Do any anon have link to videos or such that explain that fraud. I want to know more about the subject next time she has to (medicare required) go back…

Thanks in advance Anons…