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22 תְּהִלִּים
אֵלִי אֵלִי, לָמָה עֲזַבְתָּנִי
Something even more curious is that the passage suggests that Jesus is quoting Psalms 22:1 yet in Hebrew that phrase is eli, eli lama ‘azabethni not sabachthani. It sounds similar but it is not the same at all.
Perhaps one explanation is that given by the Eastern Church and that is that the scribes who wrote this out in Greek really did not understand what this phrase really meant, so they merely transliterated it into the Greek rather than translated it and then put in a short commentary or their own opinion and indicated this by the words that is to say… In other words they were not sure they had correctly quoted Jesus so they assumed he was speaking Psalms 22:1 and put in a little commentary to offer their opinion as to what he really said.
http://www.chaimbentorah.com/2014/04/word-study-eli-eli-lama-sabachthani/
If Matthew’s first two words of the quote are Hebrew and Mark’s are Aramaic then the obvious question is what language are the remaining two words, “lama sabachthani” (λεμα σαβαχθανι)? In an interesting coincidence these words are used in both Aramaic and Mishnaic Hebrew (the Hebrew used at the time of Yeshua). Thus the remainder of the sentence doesn’t give us a clue which language is being used.
https://torahclass.com/archived-articles/412-did-the-messiah-speak-aramaic-or-hebrew-part-2-by-eaknapp
Where does the idea that Jesus spoke Aramaic come from?
From Josephus, the historian so beloved by the Roman Catholic authorities. Josephus is almost too good to be true, answering all the questions which might come up in a biblical pursuit of knowledge. I, on the other suggest caution in accepting Josephus as a valid historical account. Eusibius and Josephus are the two greatest authorities promoted by the Catholic system and Eusibius can be proven to lie in his own works.
The first-century Jewish historian Flavius Josephus (37 or 38 – about 101 A.D.) testifies to the fact that Aramaic and Hebrew were the languages of first-century Jews. Moreover, he testifies that Aramaic – and NOT Greek – was the every-day language of his place and time.
http://www.hope-of-israel.org/h&a.html
Was Hebrew or Aramaic spoken in Jerusalem in the first century?
There are instances of popular sayings in Aramaic, but every single parable is in Hebrew” (“Spoken and Literary Languages in the Time of Jesus,” in Jesus’ Last Week: Jerusalem Studies in the Synoptic Gospels, Vol. 1 [ed. R. S. Notley, M. Turnage and B. Becker; Leiden: E. J. Brill, 2005], 238; see also Randall Buth and Brian Kvasnica, “Temple Authorities and Tithe Evasion: The Linguistic Background and Impact of the Parable of the Vineyard, the Tenants and the Son,” in Jesus’ Last Week, 58, n. 17).
https://www.jerusalemperspective.com/6601/
Hebrew also was typically chosen for written accounts of Jewish religious significance, as evidenced by post-biblical writings such as Ben Sira, 1 Maccabees (according to consensus), by the Qumran texts and tannaic Hebrew texts. On the significant lack of Aramaic targum at Qumran, see Randall Buth, “Where Is the Aramaic Bible at Qumran? Scripture Use in the Land of Israel.”
https://www.jerusalemperspective.com/6601/
http://www.jerusalemperspective.com/default.aspx?&tabid=27&ArticleID=1786
If it is likely that the literary language of Jews in the time of Jesus was Hebrew, and the ordinary language of teaching was Hebrew, what was the primary spoken language of the Jewish residents of the Land? It appears that it, too, was Hebrew.
https://www.jerusalemperspective.com/6601/
Physical evidence supports Hebrew as the spoken language of Israel during the first century.