Gold Reserve question for Econfags out there. Most of the calculations I have seen refer to taking 40% of the monetary supply and revaluing gold at that number. I get the 40% stops deflation/stagflation however why the 40%. I cannot seem to dig to find the reason behind this %.
This makes sense. Ive run simulations on the top 50 countries reserve holdings against their annualized GDP/Broad $/ and Debt to GDP ratio. I cant imagine if a full revaluation were to take place it wouldn't have to be the whole enchilada rather than the 40% partial. Interestingly most GDP to reserve holdings all seem to level out at a certain point. It will be like dominoes once initiated. The debt and total derivatives is an entirely different issue. Im not sure how those will be addressed, but it will need to be segregated from the monetary supply.
Get a brian Moran! Its an old hat term/meme
Yes, TY anon. Im just wondering if they plan to kill the financial cabal if 40% would still be reversible. It seems if the intent is to drain them of ALL power, one would need to go all in. Massive wealth transfer, but if the avg American household has 1/3 to 1 OZ of gold and 1-10 Oz Ag. Then maybe it will be more of a universal payout.