Anonymous ID: 06ccc9 Some Bread For Lamestream Media to Chew On Jan. 12, 2019, 7:32 a.m. No.4724793   🗄️.is 🔗kun

I found an article that pretty much sums up a Nutshell Version of what the Lamestream Media has been getting wrong. Also, at least some bits-n-pieces or the whole article itself may serve as some bread for mem-makers & infographics.

AmericanLibertyReport-dot-com – /articles/forget-the-media-2018-was-an-excellent-year/

Anonymous ID: 06ccc9 A Legal Case for the Titles & Nobilities Clause? Jan. 12, 2019, 8:08 a.m. No.4725150   🗄️.is 🔗kun

Art.1 1, Sec. 9, Cl. 8: No Title of Nobility shall be granted by the United States: And no Person holding any Office of Profit or Trust under them, shall, without the Consent of the Congress, accept of any present, Emolument, Office, or Title, of any kind whatever, from any King, Prince or foreign State.

 

Correct me if I'm wrong here, but I don't think I am; The Citizenship Status IS a Title that carries with it certain benefits, privelges & Rights as they are bestowed by a specific nation & its government. Some of these specific benefits include but are not limited to any Civil Rights, Legal Standing & Protections in the nation's Courts, other Lawful Privleges as accorded to Citizens of that nation. Therefore, as Dual-Citizenship IS an official Title, why do so many of our government officials hold Dual, ore even Multiple, Citizenships while "serving" within our American Government?

 

Yes, that selfsame Clause does include "Consent of Congress" as a potential exception to that rule, but far too much of that "Consent" has made Dual-Citizenship into THE Rule instead of the exception TO the Rule. Does the Constitution carry that specific Power of "Consent of Congress" as an overall blanket Rule that happens automatically, or does Congress even bother to address each instance individually, as it would befit an "Exception" to the Rule? Has Congress actually used that phrase "Consent of Congress" to effectively nullify the whole Clause & the explicit effect that the Clause is supposed to have?

 

How can this be legally brought before the Supreme Court for a Ruling, based upon these arguements? Any legal-eagles have any thoughts and/or research on this?