Hey guys,

This is probably a useless shitpost, but I want to get it out there and see if anyone can maybe do something with it.

So we're following the Egyptians and Phoenicians. I think it's pretty obvious at this point the Phoenicians are both the Vikings AND Venetians. Are they also the Parisians?

The name is alllllllmost the same, same way Phoenicians and Venetians is almost the same (although not AS close). France + Venice were allied numerous times through the middle ages, occasionally coming to blows, but not with any lasting effects usually. The Vikings raided the French coast, but only made it inland to Paris one time. An implicitly allied Paris and Venice (see! Similar sounds!) would give one control over almost the entirety of Europe - Venice controls the Mediterranean, France controls the Mainland - It's central, the eastern regions are already on lock via the Vikings.

Did the Pharaohs move west after Moses and settle in France? Is this why Payseur is so important? Are they the Pharaohs?

The similarities are pretty uncanny. Both rulers insisted they were descendants of God and given "Divine Right" to rule. There's also a strangeness to French that is unique amongst Romance languages, there are parts of it that sound distinctly arabic. It's possible that these sounds and phrases are the remnants of dealing w/ the Moors, but maybe it's even older than that?

Anyway just thoughts that have been making my brain itch, hopefully someone who knows more can either make this more complete or tear it all down so I can get some clarity :P.