Anonymous ID: 45d835 April 22, 2019, 1:14 a.m. No.6270964   🗄️.is 🔗kun

>>6270893

>>6270768 lb

The comment to which Anon was replying was this: >>6270722 lb

…and the person who quoted John 14:8-9 was absolutely correct. Peter wasn't the guy Jesus was talking to in that passage. It was Philip.

 

The discussion was whether Jesus ever claimed, in the 4 gospels, tha He Himself was one with the Father.

 

The answer is yes.

Anonymous ID: 45d835 April 22, 2019, 1:26 a.m. No.6271003   🗄️.is 🔗kun   >>1020 >>1106

>>6270951

That's not what I'd call an 'attack.' The explanation, complete with scripture references from Isaiah, John, Philippians, and the books of Revelation and Hebrews was clearly spelled out, proving that the Bible is quite consistent with itself on the topic of Jesus being equal with God. "In Him [Jesus] dwelt the FULLNESS of the Godhead, bodily" – Colossians 2:9

 

The only one who might take such an informative answer as an 'attack' would be someone who is resistant to any coherent, well-researched and definitive ANSWER to the question of whether Jesus is God in the flesh.

 

"In the beginning was the Word. The Word [Logos] was with God, and the Word WAS God. The Word [Logos] became flesh and dwelt among us. He came to His own, and His own [the Jews] received Him not" – Gospel of John, chapter 1.

 

This is not rocket science, nor is it an 'attack.'

Anonymous ID: 45d835 April 22, 2019, 1:38 a.m. No.6271029   🗄️.is 🔗kun

>>6271020

Just so you know, by giving a specific answer to that question, you are 'attacking' people who are trying to confuse the subject.

 

Shame on you Anon!