Question for lawfags: if a DA has a relationship with a criminal enterprise and assures them before the commit a crime that they can do so without being prosecuted then can the be charged as an accessory to that crime? Would it require proving that the crime would not have been feasible, and therefore would not have been committed, without these assurances?
>But, to be sure, there is no direct communication between the DA and the looters.
Probably not between the DA and the dumb thugs, no. But maybe between the DA and the ANTIFA "top brass"…