If the new Strzok notes are indeed from 1/4 as is being reported, and there were no unmasking requests of Gen Flynn between the date of the Flynn-Kislyak call and 1/5 (per previous DNI declas), how in the HELL were they discussing the contents of said call [legally] on 1/4??? Wouldn't Flynn have been "US Person 1" or something in the transcript until he was unmasked? Is this not proof of Hussein's illegal spying op?