Serious question for any lawfags: How can the DoJ move to dismiss a case based upon an internal review determination that the previous AAG (Weismann +) maliciously prosecuted the case WITHOUT, at the very least, instituting disciplinary action(s) against the very same AAG who bankrupted and nearly ruined the American Patriot and Hero Gen. Michael Flynn. That is, unless Judge Sullivan has been told ex parte that there are a number off on-going criminal investigations involving Mr. Weismann and his team. If this is the case, this ex parte communication must be part of the entire record on appeal before the full D.C. circuit in the en banc hearing.
It just seems obvious that the prior AAGs must pay a price for fraud upon the district court as well as for what was done to Gen. Flynn. For if not, Gen. Flynn's motion and writ would seem to ring hollow, no? Also, wouldn't Judge Sullivan be able to get a piece of Weismann for the fraud perpetrated against his court?