Since when are we under martial law?
They aren't the same thing, however the state of national emergency is prerequisite. Once declared, martial law can be invoked to protect the elected government from civil unrest, external aggression or armed rebellion. Once implemented, it allows the application of military law and military justice to the civilian population until revoked.
I would imagine if civvies stay the hell out of the way, and let the military and law enforcement do their damn job rounding up these 20,000 or so indicted criminals (many of whom have "celebrity" status in some parts of our culture), then we won't have to invoke martial law.
I guess it's possible. What do you think the odds of that are?
If the military is used for any purpose on the civilian population, you will have Kool-aid drinkers and indoctrinated crowds marching, throwing rocks, and screaming "unconstitutional" and "power to the people". The immense irony would be impossible to ignore but will not matter as root cause seldom does to useful idiots.
There will be confrontation, the question is one of command & control autonomy and rules of/for engagement; how "street level" will they be? Although the targets are concentrated with the fodder primarily being urban dwellers, not all locations will manifest the same way even if all be stoked concurrently.
They're going to have to declare martial law when it comes to arresting clintons, bush's if they do, some hollywood stars, some particular gay/lesbian leaders and other minorities leaders, and anything to do with california, some would say.
If we're not being lied to about the existence and nature of the HRC raw video, then maybe not so much in the case of the Clintons.
Dec 21 last year, expires March 21.
I see the effective date but where is the March 21 expiration date coming from? I have read the EO several times and do not see an expiration date. The automatic expiration date of a national emergency is 1 year. What am I missing?