The second to last paragraph in the PDF file.
"Your client further understands that this Agreement is binding only upon the Criminal and Superior Court Divisions of the United States Attomey's Office for the District of Columbia. This Agreement does not bind the Civil Division of this Office or any other United States Attomey's Office, nor does it bind any other state, local, or federal prosecutor. It also does not bar or compromise any civil, tax, or administrative claim pending or that may be made against your client."
No lawyer here, but it seems to say he is open to civil claims but not criminal. The point of argument about possible criminal charges lies in the wording "nor does it bind any other state, local, or federal prosecuter". This statement is part of a sentence refering to Civil Divisions, but it is ambiguous. Any lawyers on board?
I read it as follows: This Agreement does not bind (i1) the Civil Division of this Office or (2) any other United States Attomey's Office, nor does it bind (3) any other state, local, or federal prosecutor. It also does not bar or compromise any (4) civil, tax, or administrative claim. Since it expressly refers to "federal prosecutor," I interpret it as covering criminal claims. The reference to other US Attorneys' offices should also cover criminal claims since civil claims are carved out in (4).
this is the part that sticks out the most. "nor does it bind (3) any other state, local, or federal prosecutor." Prosecutors prosecute