Anons, I am not a lawfag, and I am especially not a Constitutional lawfag, but it seems to me that the SC had to throw out the Texas suit for this reason: Until such time as the Electors are seated and vote for their respective states, the SC doesn't have jurisdiction. It is up to the states, and any questions of fraud stop at the state's borders until Electors (as provided by the Constitution) choose the President. Once that is done, and if it is done on a fraudulent basis, then the SC may intervene. Not sure if this is right, but could use a lawfag opinion.
test