Here's a thought for all you math autists out there.

Now we know from Q that "[P]=[C]".

We can reduce that to "P=C" using the law of reduction.

Now, let's step over to "C before D".

Since "P=C" we could therefore substitute and say "P before D".

Could Q have been telling us "Pope (arrested?) before Declass"?

NOTE: I know there a long time anons that will say "P=Payseur". But didn't Q also say his posts can have more than one meaning?

Just my two cents.