Random thought.
If the Supreme Court rules that the courts can't find Trump as having taken part in an insurrection because he hasn't been found guilty in a court of law, then how do the courts find so many people financially liable for a crime they've been acquitted of in a criminal trial?
I know that. So if a civil court can find you guilty of a crime you were aquitted of because it's not a criminal court and has a lower threshold, why can't the colorado court (not a criminal court) find trump took part in an insurrection?
To be clear, Trump didn't take part in an insurrection as far as I'm concerned.