I agree with this sentiment VERY much. That said…
>My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?
Sin of the world—past, present, future had to be deposited on/in Jesus. God the Father had to turn His back to him at this moment. This would be the first time EVER Jesus felt his Father's presence LEAVE/ABANDON Him.
For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him. 2 Corin 5:21
Satan was tricked into killing the ONLY EVER truly sinless man—no legal right to do so.
Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law by becoming a curse for us—for it is written, “Cursed is everyone who is hanged upon a tree”— Gal 3:13
People get weird about the next topic…I personally don't get why…if Jesus paid the price for us, doesn't that mean he had to go too Hell in our place/instead of us?
We know that Jesus ascended into heaven; Acts 1:9, “…..he was taken up; and a cloud received him out of their sight.” Before he ascended into heaven, he also descended down into hell; Eph. 4:9-10, “…..he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth…..he that descended is the same also that ascended…..” It is confirmed again that Jesus went to hell; Acts 2:31, “…..spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption.” The reason Jesus went to hell was because, he had to receive the same punishment as mortal man. He also went there to offer salvation to all the righteous people who died before his death on the cross; 1 Pet. 4:6, “…..for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God…..” Jesus went to hell but was resurrected; therefore he conquered death; 1 Cor.15:26, “the last enemy that shall be destroyed is death.” ''Because Jesus conquered death, he now holds the keys of death; Rev. 1:18, “I am he that liveth, and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore, Amen; and have the keys of hell and of death.”''
I think verse 5 below shows that Jesus' Father God "forsook" Him, unless we don't have a correct understanding of the word "again." How is he a father unto Jesus ''"again"'' unless there was a temporary cutting off/separation/"forsaking."
1 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
3 Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high:
4 Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they.
5 For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? ''And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?''
…my take on it.
"was there an eclipse is another subject" kek